multiple choice questions and answers

  • Sales revenues are usually considered earned when a. cash is received from credit sales. b. an order is received. c. goods have been transferred from the seller to the buyer. d. adjusting entries are made.

    Test Bank for Accounting Principles, Eleventh Edition

    5 - 13

    Accounting for Merchandising Operations

    CHAPTER 5

    ACCOUNTING FOR MERCHANDISING OPERATIONS

    Summary of Questions by LEARNING Objectives and Bloom’s Taxonomy
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    Multiple Choice Questions

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    sg This question also appears in the Study Guide.

    st This question also appears in a self-test at the student companion website.

    a This question covers a topic in an appendix to the chapter.

    Summary of Questions by LEARNING Objectives and Bloom’s Taxonomy

    Brief Exercises

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    SUMMARY OF LEARNING OBJECTIVES BY QUESTION TYPE

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    Learning Objective 1

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    SUMMARY OF Learning OBJECTIVES BY QUESTION TYPE

    Learning Objective 4

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    Learning Objective 5

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    Learning Objective a6

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    Learning Objective a7

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    Learning Objective 8

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    Note: TF = True-False BE = Brief Exercise C = Completion

    MC = Multiple Choice Ex = Exercise SA = Short-Answer

    MA = Matching

    CHAPTER LEARNING OBJECTIVES

    1. Identify the differences between service and merchandising companies. Because of inventory, a merchandising company has sales revenue, cost of goods sold, and gross profit. To account for inventory, a merchandising company must choose between a perpetual and a periodic inventory system.

    2. Explain the recording of purchases under a perpetual inventory system. The company debits the Inventory account for all purchases of merchandise, and freight-in, and credits it for purchase discounts and purchase returns and allowances.

    3. Explain the recording of sales revenues under a perpetual inventory system. When a merchandising company sells inventory, it debits Accounts Receivable (or Cash) and credits Sales Revenue for the selling price of the merchandise. At the same time, it debits Cost of Goods Sold and credits Inventory for the cost of the inventory items sold. Sales returns and allowances and sales discounts are debited and are contra revenue accounts.

    4. Explain the steps in the accounting cycle for a merchandising company. Each of the required steps in the accounting cycle for a service company applies to a merchandising company. A worksheet is again an optional step. Under a perpetual inventory system, the company must adjust the Inventory account to agree with the physical count.

    5. Distinguish between a multiple-step and a single-step income statement. A multiple-step income statement shows numerous steps in determining net income, including nonoperating activities sections. A single-step income statement classifies all data under two categories, revenues or expenses, and determines net income in one step.

    a6. Prepare a worksheet for a merchandising company. The steps in preparing a worksheet for a merchandising company are the same as for a service company. The unique accounts for a merchandiser are Inventory, Sales Revenue, Sales Returns and Allowances, Sales Discounts, and Cost of Goods Sold.

    a7. Explain the recording of purchases and sales of inventory under a periodic inventory system. In recording purchases under a periodic system, companies must make entries for (a) cash and credit purchases, (b) purchase returns and allowances, (c) purchase discounts, and (d) freight costs. In recording sales, companies must make entries for (a) cash and credit sales, (b) sales returns and allowances, and (c) sales discounts.

    TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS

    1. Retailers and wholesalers are both considered merchandisers.

    Ans: T, LO: 1, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    2. The steps in the accounting cycle are different for a merchandising company than for a service company.

    Ans: F, LO: 1, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    3. Sales minus operating expenses equals gross profit.

    Ans: F, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    4. Under a perpetual inventory system, the cost of goods sold is determined each time a sale occurs.

    Ans: T, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

    5. A periodic inventory system requires a detailed inventory record of inventory items.

    Ans: F, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

    6. Freight terms of FOB Destination means that the seller pays the freight costs.

    Ans: T, LO: 2, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    7. Freight costs incurred by the seller on outgoing merchandise are an operating expense to the seller.

    Ans: T, LO: 2, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    8. Sales revenues are earned during the period cash is collected from the buyer.

    Ans: F, LO: 3, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    9. The Sales Returns and Allowances account and the Sales Discount account are both classified as expense accounts.

    Ans: F, LO: 3, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    10. The revenue recognition principle applies to merchandisers by recognizing sales revenues when the performance obligation is satisfied.

    Ans: T, LO: 3, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    11. Sales Returns and Allowances and Sales Discounts are both designed to encourage customers to pay their accounts promptly.

    Ans: F, LO: 3, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    12. To grant a customer a sales return, the seller credits Sales Returns and Allowances.

    Ans: F, LO: 3, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

    13. A company's unadjusted balance in Inventory will usually not agree with the actual amount of inventory on hand at year-end.

    Ans: T, LO: 4, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    14. For a merchandising company, all accounts that affect the determination of income are closed to the Income Summary account.

    Ans: T, LO: 4, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    15. A merchandising company has different types of adjusting entries than a service company.

    Ans: F, LO: 4, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

    16. Nonoperating activities exclude revenues and expenses that result from secondary or auxiliary operations.

    Ans: F, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    17. Operating expenses are different for merchandising and service enterprises.

    Ans: F, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

    18. Net sales appears on both the multiple-step and single-step forms of an income statement.

    Ans: T, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    19. A multiple-step income statement provides users with more information about a company’s income performance.

    Ans: T, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    20. The multiple-step form of income statement is easier to read than the single-step form.

    Ans: F, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    21. Inventory is classified as a current asset in a classified balance sheet.

    Ans: T, LO: 5, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    22. Gain on sale of equipment and interest expense are reported under other revenues and gains in a multiple-step income statement.

    Ans: F, LO: 5, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    23. The gross profit section for a merchandising company appears on both the multiple-step and single-step forms of an income statement.

    Ans: F, LO: 5, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    24. In a multiple-step income statement, income from operations excludes other revenues and gains and other expenses and losses.

    Ans: T, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    25. A single-step income statement reports all revenues, both operating and other revenues and gains, at the top of the statement.

    Ans: T, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    26. If net sales are $800,000 and cost of goods sold is $600,000, the gross profit rate is 25%.

    Ans: T, LO: 5, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: Reporting

    27. Gross profit represents the merchandising profit of a company.

    Ans: T, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    28. Gross profit is a measure of the overall profitability of a company.

    Ans: F, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    29. Gross profit rate is computed by dividing cost of goods sold by net sales.

    Ans: F, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    a30. In a worksheet, cost of goods sold will be shown in the trial balance (Dr.), adjusted trial balance (Dr.) and income statement (Dr.) columns.

    Ans: T, LO: 6, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

    a31. Freight-in is an account that is subtracted from the Purchases account to arrive at cost of goods purchased.

    Ans: F, LO: 7, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    a32. Under a periodic inventory system, the acquisition of inventory is charged to the Purchases account.

    Ans: T, LO: 7, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

    a33. Under a periodic inventory system, freight-in on merchandise purchases should be charged to the Inventory account.

    Ans: F, LO: 7, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

    a34. Purchase Returns and Allowances and Purchase Discounts are subtracted from Purchases to produce net purchases.

    Ans: T, LO: 7, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    35. Inventory is reported as a long-term asset on the balance sheet.

    Ans: F, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    36. Under a perpetual inventory system, inventory shrinkage and lost or stolen goods are more readily determined.

    Ans: T, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

    37. The terms 2/10, n/30 state that a 2% discount is available if the invoice is paid within the first 10 days of the next month.

    Ans: F, LO: 2, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    38. Sales revenue should be recorded in accordance with the matching principle.

    Ans: F, LO: 3, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

    39. Sales returns and allowances and sales discounts are subtracted from sales in reporting net sales in the income statement.

    Ans: T, LO: 3, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    40. A merchandising company using a perpetual inventory system will usually need to make an adjusting entry to ensure that the recorded inventory agrees with physical inventory count.

    Ans: T, LO: 4, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

    41. If a merchandising company sells land at more than its cost, the gain should be reported in the sales revenue section of the income statement.

    Ans: F, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    42. The major difference between the balance sheets of a service company and a merchandising company is inventory.

    Ans: T, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    Answers to True-False Statements

    Item

    Ans.

    Item

    Ans.

    Item

    Ans.

    Item

    Ans.

    Item

    Ans.

    Item

    Ans.

    Item

    Ans.

    1.

    T

    7.

    T

    13.

    T

    19.

    T

    25.

    T

    a31.

    F

    37.

    F

    2.

    F

    8.

    F

    14.

    T

    20.

    F

    26.

    T

    a32.

    T

    38.

    F

    3.

    F

    9.

    F

    15.

    F

    21.

    T

    27.

    T

    a33.

    F

    39.

    T

    4.

    T

    10.

    T

    16.

    F

    22.

    F

    28.

    F

    a34.

    T

    40.

    T

    5.

    F

    11.

    F

    17.

    F

    23.

    F

    29.

    F

    35.

    F

    41.

    F

    6.

    T

    12.

    F

    18.

    T

    24.

    T

    30.

    T

    36.

    T

    42.

    T

    MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

    43. Net income is gross profit less

    a. financing expenses.

    b. operating expenses.

    c. other expenses and losses.

    d. other expenses.

    Ans: B, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    44. An enterprise which sells goods to customers is known as a

    a. proprietorship.

    b. corporation.

    c. retailer.

    d. service firm.

    Ans: C, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    45. Which of the following would not be considered a merchandising company?

    a. Retailer

    b. Wholesaler

    c. Service firm

    d. Dot Com firm

    Ans: C, LO: 1, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    46. A merchandising company that sells directly to consumers is a

    a. retailer.

    b. wholesaler.

    c. broker.

    d. service company.

    Ans: A, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    47. Two categories of expenses for merchandising companies are

    a. cost of goods sold and financing expenses.

    b. operating expenses and financing expenses.

    c. cost of goods sold and operating expenses.

    d. sales and cost of goods sold.

    Ans: C, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    48. The primary source of revenue for a wholesaler is

    a. investment income.

    b. service fees.

    c. the sale of merchandise.

    d. the sale of fixed assets the company owns.

    Ans: C, LO: 1, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    49. Sales revenue less cost of goods sold is called

    a. gross profit.

    b. net profit.

    c. net income.

    d. marginal income.

    Ans: A, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    50. After gross profit is calculated, operating expenses are deducted to determine

    a. gross margin.

    b. net income.

    c. gross profit on sales.

    d. net margin.

    Ans: B, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    51. Cost of goods sold is determined only at the end of the accounting period in

    a. a perpetual inventory system.

    b. a periodic inventory system.

    c. both a perpetual and a periodic inventory system.

    d. neither a perpetual nor a periodic inventory system.

    Ans: B, LO: 1, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

    52. Which of the following expressions is incorrect?

    a. Gross profit – operating expenses = net income

    b. Sales revenue – cost of goods sold – operating expenses = net income

    c. Net income + operating expenses = gross profit

    d. Operating expenses – cost of goods sold = gross profit

    Ans: D, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

    53. Detailed records of goods held for resale are not maintained under a

    a. perpetual inventory system.

    b. periodic inventory system.

    c. double entry accounting system.

    d. single entry accounting system.

    Ans: B, LO: 1, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    54. A perpetual inventory system would likely be used by a(n)

    a. automobile dealership.

    b. hardware store.

    c. drugstore.

    d. convenience store.

    Ans: A, LO: 1, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    55. Which of the following is a true statement about inventory systems?

    a. Periodic inventory systems require more detailed inventory records.

    b. Perpetual inventory systems require more detailed inventory records.

    c. A periodic system requires cost of goods sold be determined after each sale.

    d. A perpetual system determines cost of goods sold only at the end of the accounting period.

    Ans: B, LO: 1, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    56. In a perpetual inventory system, cost of goods sold is recorded

    a. on a daily basis.

    b. on a monthly basis.

    c. on an annual basis.

    d. with each sale.

    Ans: D, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

    57. If a company determines cost of goods sold each time a sale occurs, it

    a. must have a computer accounting system.

    b. uses a combination of the perpetual and periodic inventory systems.

    c. uses a periodic inventory system.

    d. uses a perpetual inventory system.

    Ans: D, LO: 1, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    58. Under a perpetual inventory system, acquisition of merchandise for resale is debited to the

    a. Inventory account.

    b. Purchases account.

    c. Supplies account.

    d. Cost of Goods Sold account.

    Ans: A, LO: 2, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    59. The journal entry to record a return of merchandise purchased on account under a perpetual inventory system would credit

    a. Accounts Payable.

    b. Purchase Returns and Allowances.

    c. Sales Revenue.

    d. Inventory.

    Ans: D, LO: 2, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

    60. The Inventory account is used in each of the following except the entry to record

    a. goods purchased on account.

    b. the return of goods purchased.

    c. payment of freight on goods sold.

    d. payment within the discount period.

    Ans: C, LO: 2, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

    61. A buyer would record a payment within the discount period under a perpetual inventory system by crediting

    a. Accounts Payable.

    b. Inventory.

    c. Purchase Discounts.

    d. Sales Discounts.

    Ans: B, LO: 2, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

    62. If a purchaser using a perpetual system agrees to freight terms of FOB shipping point, then the

    a. Inventory account will be increased.

    b. Inventory account will not be affected.

    c. seller will bear the freight cost.

    d. carrier will bear the freight cost.

    Ans: A, LO: 2, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    63. Freight costs paid by a seller on merchandise sold to customers will cause an increase

    a. in the selling expense of the buyer.

    b. in operating expenses for the seller.

    c. to the cost of goods sold of the seller.

    d. to a contra-revenue account of the seller.

    Ans: B, LO: 2, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    64. Paden Company purchased merchandise from Emmett Company with freight terms of FOB shipping point. The freight costs will be paid by the

    a. seller.

    b. buyer.

    c. transportation company.

    d. buyer and the seller.

    Ans: B, LO: 2, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    65. Glenn Company purchased merchandise inventory with an invoice price of $9,000 and credit terms of 2/10, n/30. What is the net cost of the goods if Glenn Company pays within the discount period?

    a. $8,100

    b. $8,280

    c. $8,820

    d. $9,000

    Ans: C, LO: 2, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

    Solution: $9,000 ( (1 - .02) ( $8,820

    66. Scott Company purchased merchandise with an invoice price of $3,000 and credit terms of 1/10, n/30. Assuming a 360 day year, what is the implied annual interest rate inherent in the credit terms?

    a. 20%

    b. 24%

    c. 18%

    d. 36%

    Ans: C, LO: 2, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

    Solution: [360 ( (30 ( 10)] ( 1% ( 18%

    67. If a company is given credit terms of 2/10, n/30, it should

    a. hold off paying the bill until the end of the credit period, while investing the money at 10% annual interest during this time.

    b. pay within the discount period and recognize a savings.

    c. pay within the credit period but don't take the trouble to invest the cash while waiting to pay the bill.

    d. recognize that the supplier is desperate for cash and withhold payment until the end of the credit period while negotiating a lower sales price.

    Ans: B, LO: 2, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: Business Economics

    68. In a perpetual inventory system, the amount of the discount allowed for paying for merchandise purchased within the discount period is credited to

    a. Inventory.

    b. Purchase Discounts.

    c. Purchase Allowance.

    d. Sales Discounts.

    Ans: A, LO: 2, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

    69. Jake’s Market recorded the following events involving a recent purchase of merchandise:

    Received goods for $60,000, terms 2/10, n/30.

    Returned $1,200 of the shipment for credit.

    Paid $300 freight on the shipment.

    Paid the invoice within the discount period.

    As a result of these events, the company’s inventory increased by

    a. $57,624.

    b. $57,918.

    c. $57,924.

    d. $59,100.

    Ans: C, LO: 2, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

    Solution: [($60,000 ( $1,200( .98)] ( 300 ( $57,924

    70. Costner’s Market recorded the following events involving a recent purchase of merchandise:

    Received goods for $40,000, terms 2/10, n/30.

    Returned $800 of the shipment for credit.

    Paid $200 freight on the shipment.

    Paid the invoice within the discount period.

    As a result of these events, the company’s inventory

    a. increased by $38,416.

    b. increased by $38,612.

    c. increased by $38,616.

    d. increased by $39,400.

    Ans: C, LO: 2, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

    Solution: [($40,000 ( $800) ( .98] ( $200 ( $38,616

    71. Under the perpetual system, cash freight costs incurred by the buyer for the transporting of goods is recorded in

    a. Freight Expense.

    b. Freight - In.

    c. Inventory.

    d Freight - Out.

    Ans: C, LO: 2, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

    72. Glover Co. returned defective goods costing $5,000 to Mal Company on April 19, for credit. The goods were purchased April 10, on credit, terms 3/10, n/30. The entry by Glover Co. on April 19, in receiving full credit is:

    a. Accounts Payable 5,000

    Inventory 5,000

    b. Accounts Payable 5,000

    Inventory 150

    Cash 5,150

    c. Accounts Payable 5,000

    Purchase Discounts 120

    Inventory 4,850

    d. Accounts Payable 5,000

    Inventory 120

    Cash 4,850

    Ans: A, LO: 2, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

    73. McIntyre Company made a purchase of merchandise on credit from Marvin Company on August 8, for $9,000, terms 3/10, n/30. On August 17, McIntyre makes the appropriate payment to Marvin. The entry on August 17 for McIntyre Company is:

    a. Accounts Payable 9,000

    Cash 9,000

    b. Accounts Payable 8,730

    Cash 8,730

    c. Accounts Payable 9,000

    Purchase Returns and Allowances 270

    MC. 73 (Cont.)

    Cash 8,730

    d. Accounts Payable 9,000

    Inventory 270

    Cash 8,730

    Ans: D, LO: 2, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

    Solution: $9,000 ( .97 ( $8,730

    74. On July 9, Sheb Company sells goods on credit to Wooley Company for $5,000, terms 1/10, n/60. Sheb receives payment on July 18. The entry by Sheb on July 18 is:

    a. Cash 5,000

    Accounts Receivable 5,000

    b. Cash 5,000

    Sales Discounts 50

    Accounts Receivable 4,950

    c. Cash 4,950

    Sales Discounts 50

    Accounts Receivable 5,000

    d. Cash 5,050

    Sales Discounts 50

    Accounts Receivable 5,000

    Ans: C, LO: 3, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

    Solution: $5,000 ( .99 ( $4,950

    75. On November 2, 2014, Kasdan Company has cash sales of $6,000 from merchandise having a cost of $3,600. The entries to record the day's cash sales will include:

    a. a $3,600 credit to Cost of Goods Sold.

    b. a $6,000 credit to Cash.

    c. a $3,600 credit to Inventory.

    d a $6,000 debit to Accounts Receivable.

    Ans: C, LO: 3, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

    76. A credit sale of $4,000 is made on April 25, terms 2/10, n/30, on which a return of $250 is granted on April 28. What amount is received as payment in full on May 4?

    a. $3,675

    b. $3,750

    c. $3,920

    d $4,000

    Ans: A, LO: 3, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

    Solution: ($4,000 ( $250) ( .98 ( $3,675

    77. The entry to record the receipt of payment within the discount period on a sale of $2,000 with terms of 2/10, n/30 will include a credit to

    a. Sales Discounts for $40.

    b. Cash for $1,960.

    c. Accounts Receivable for $2,000.

    d. Sales Revenue for $2,000.

    Ans: C, LO: 3, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

    78. The collection of a $6,000 account within the 2 percent discount period will result in a

    a. debit to Sales Discounts for $120.

    b. debit to Accounts Receivable for $5,880.

    c. credit to Cash for $5,880.

    d. credit to Accounts Receivable for $5,880.

    Ans: A, LO: 3, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

    Solution: $6,000 ( .02 ( $120

    79. Company X sells $900 of merchandise on account to Company Y with credit terms of 2/10, n/30. If Company Y remits a check taking advantage of the discount offered, what is the amount of Company Y's check?

    a. $630

    b. $720

    c. $810

    d. $882

    Ans: D, LO: 3, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

    Solution: $900 ( .98 ( $882

    80. Cleese Company sells merchandise on account for $5,000 to Langston Company with credit terms of 2/10, n/30. Langston Company returns $1,000 of merchandise that was damaged, along with a check to settle the account within the discount period. What is the amount of the check?

    a. $3,920

    b. $4,000

    c. $4,900

    d. $4,920

    Ans: A, LO: 3, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

    Solution: ($5,000 ( $1,000) ( .98 ( $3,920

    81. The collection of a $1,500 account after the 2 percent discount period will result in a

    a. debit to Cash for $1,470.

    b. debit to Accounts Receivable for $1,500.

    c. debit to Cash for $1,500.

    d. debit to Sales Discounts for $30.

    Ans: C, LO: 3, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

    82. The collection of a $1,000 account after the 2 percent discount period will result in a

    a. debit to Cash for $980.

    b. credit to Accounts Receivable for $1,000.

    c. credit to Cash for $1,000.

    d. debit to Sales Discounts for $20.

    Ans: B, LO: 3, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

    83. In a perpetual inventory system, the Cost of Goods Sold account is used

    a. only when a cash sale of merchandise occurs.

    b. only when a credit sale of merchandise occurs.

    c. only when a sale of merchandise occurs.

    d. whenever there is a sale of merchandise or a return of merchandise sold.

    Ans: D, LO: 3, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

    84. Sales revenues are usually considered earned when

    a. cash is received from credit sales.

    b. an order is received.

    c. goods have been transferred from the seller to the buyer.

    d. adjusting entries are made.

    Ans: C, LO: 3, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: Reporting

    85. A sales invoice is a source document that

    a. provides support for goods purchased for resale.

    b. provides evidence of incurred operating expenses.

    c. provides evidence of credit sales.

    d. serves only as a customer receipt.

  • A researcher posed a null hypothesis that there was no significant difference between boys and girls on a standard memory test. She randomly sampled 100 girls and 100 boys in a community and gave them the standard memory test.

    Quiz 3

    This quiz has more conceptual questions, because I think they’re important. Be sure to understand the 2x2 box dealing with Type I and Type II errors, alpha, beta, and power.

    Each multiple choice questions is worth 0.50 point. Other questions are worth two points.

    1. (0.50 point) I hypothesized that girls in my class have the same blood pressure levels as boys. The probability value for my null hypothesis was 0.15. So I conclude that the blood pressures of the girls were higher than boys’. Which kind of mistake did I make?

    a. Type I error

    b. Type II error

    c. Type I and Type II error

    d. I did not make any mistake

    2. (0.50 point) If a statistical test result is not significant at the 0.05 level, then we can conclude:

    a. It is not significant at 0.10 level

    b. It must be significant at 0.01 level

    c. It must be significant above 0.05 level

    d. It is not significant at 0.01 level

    3. (2 points) A researcher posed a null hypothesis that there was no significant difference between boys and girls on a standard memory test. She randomly sampled 100 girls and 100 boys in a community and gave them the standard memory test. The mean score for girls was 70 and the standard deviation of mean was 5.0. The mean score for boys was 65 and the standard deviation of mean was 5.0. What is the standard error of the difference in means?

    4. (0.50 point) If power is big, you can assume:

    a. The significance level set by the researcher must be high

    b. We increase the probability of type I error

    c. Your study result will be more likely to be inconclusive

    d. The difference between the means is more likely to be detected

    5. (0.50 point) If the probability that you will correctly reject a false null hypothesis is 0.80 at 0.05 significance level. Therefore, α is__ and β is__.

    a. 0.05, 0.80

    b. 0.05, 0.20

    c. 0.95, 0.20

    d. 0.95, 0.80

    6. (2 points) The population has a mean of 678 and the population standard deviation is known to be 58.3. Use a 0.05 level of significance to test the claim that the sample scores listed below came from the population. Identify hypotheses, test statistic, P-value or critical value, conclusion about the null, and final conclusion that addresses the original claim.

    714 751 664 789 818 779 698 836 753 834 693 802

    7. (2 points) I am looking to move to either Mississippi or Arkansas, depending on the cost of housing. Below are the costs (in thousands, hypothetically) of 12 houses in each location based upon a simple random selection:

    Mississippi: 155 142 149 130 151 163 151 142 156 133 138 161

    Arkansas: 133 140 142 131 134 129 128 140 140 140 137 143

    Use a 0.05 significance level to test the claim that the mean cost of houses in Mississippi is greater than the mean cost in Arkansas. Be sure to give the hypotheses, the test statistic with a p-value, and a conclusion.

     

  • Animal cells and Plant cells Experiment Lab Report with nucleus, mitochondria, lysosomes and endoplasmic reticulum:How to do a Lab Reports

    Name:

    Course Title:

    Date:

    Instructor:

    Lesson Review 1

    1. Four cell parts found in both animal cells and plant cells are nucleus, mitochondria,
    lysosomes and endoplasmic reticulum
    2. By-products of cellular respiration are carbon dioxide and water
    3. Chlorophyll allows a plant to trap light energy from the sun and this is used in
    photosynthesis process of combining carbon dioxide and water and turning them
    into sugars.
    4. How police prove that a strand of hair at a crime scene belongs to a suspect?
    The police use DNA tests on a strand of hair from a suspect or his blood among
    others to test its similarity to the strand of hair found at the crime scene. If the tests
    are positive, then the suspect is proved to have accessed the crime scene and left the
    hair strand as evidence.

    Lesson Review 2

    1. List 3 Features of organisms in plant Kingdom
    a) Most are eukaryotic and contain chlorophyll
    b) The cell walls have cellulose

  • Clinicians who are concerned with cultural biases that are inherent with theories such as Family Systems Theories tend to criticize FST

    Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

    1. Clinicians who are concerned with cultural biases that are inherent with theories such as Family Systems Theories tend to criticize FST for:

    a. the narrow definition of family.

    b. the fact that differentiation is not culturally sensitive, and can sometimes be destructive to families who are not Caucasian middle-class.

    c. the distinct heterosexual bias.

    d. all of the above

    2. Which of the following theorists would most closely match the philosophy of human nature adopted by Virginia Satir?

    a. Sigmund Freud

    b. Carl Rogers

    c. Albert Ellis

    d. Aaron Beck

    3. Minuchin's theory of personality development tends to focus on:

    a. feedback that the identified patient receives from the other fami Iy members.

    b. implications of being a member of a triangle within a family.

    c. the development of the family rather than each individual within the family.

    d. Minuchin does not propose a theory of personality development.

    4. When stress levels rise in a family that is of relatively low differentiation, which of the following is likely to be observed?

    a. Problems in the couple relationship

    b. Dysfunction in a child

    c. Dysfunction in one of the partners

    d. All of the above are possible

    5. The idea that the therapist must know their own family is essential to which of the FSTs?

    a. structural

    b. strategic

    c. satir

    d. none of the above

    6. The pseudo independent posture is the result of:

    a. impression management strategies.

    b. high differentiation.

    c. low self-esteem.

    d. low differentiation.

    170

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    7. Janie is the youngest child in a large family. Her relatives all live down the street from Janie, but Janie refuses to visit anyone, even for Thanksgiving dinner. According to Bowen, Janie is displaying:

    a. emotional cutoff.

    b. triangulation.

    c. disengagement.

  • n the textbook case, what information led Dr. Tobin to conclude that Shaun Boyden's sexual attraction to children was not a passing fancy?

    # 1.1

    (1 pts.) In the textbook case, what information led Dr. Tobin to conclude that Shaun Boyden's sexual attraction to children was not a passing fancy? '

    A) the fact that he reported having the urges since adolescence

    B) the fact that his wife was unaware of his problem

    C) the fact that he was never caught in the past

    D) the fact that he had a relatively normal sexual development

    # 1.2

    (1 pts.) Charlie has opted to have psychosurgery performed in order to change his pedophilic patterns. Which of the following procedures will Charlie have done?

    A) prefrontal lobotomy

    B) hypothalamotomy

    C) castration

    D) vasectomy

    # 1.3

    (1 pts.) Dr. Walters is instructing Harry to imagine that he has just "flashed" his genitals at an unsuspecting woman on the street. After the woman responds in horror, Harry is to imagine that all of his closest friends jump out of a nearby alley and start laughing at him. Dr. Walters is using the technique known as

    A) systematic desensitization.

    B) cognitive restructuring.

    C) covert conditioning.

    D) behavior modification.

    # 1.4

    (1 pts.) Who is most likely to be the target of a frotteurist's desires?

    A) a person from work

    B) a life-long friend

    C) a shopper at the mall

    D) a close relative

    # 1.5

    (1 pts.) Which of the following qualities is NOT implied by a diagnosis of transvestic fetishism?

    A) male

    B) sees self as male

    C) heterosexual

    D) homosexual

    # 1.6

    (1 pts.) Cheryl is seeking a sex change operation. It is most likely that a qualified surgeon would require her to

    A) explore sexual relationships with both males and females.

    B) get parental consent prior initiating the surgery.

    C) live as a member of the opposite sex for a period prior to surgery.

    D) pay for the surgical procedures well in advance.

    # 1.7

    (1 pts.) Dwayne is very interested in sex but his penis remains flaccid despite erotic stimulation. Dwayne has

    A) sexual arousal disorder.

    B) sexual aversion disorder.

    C) male erectile disorder.

    D) inhibited male orgasm disorder.

    # 1.8

    (1 pts.) A client is diagnosed with an erectile dysfunction. Based on the research presented in the text, which of the following statements best describes the likely cause of his condition?

    A) It is most likely that his difficulty is due to physical problems.

    B) It is most likely that his difficulty is due to psychological problems.

    C) There is about a 50-50 chance that his problems are due to either physical or psychological factors.

    D) There is a strong chance that his difficulties are due to neurological problems.

    # 1.9

    (1 pts.) Based on the information presented in the textbook case, Shaun Boyden might be considered a ______ since he had a normal history of sexual development and interests.

    A) child rapist

    B) preference molester

    C) situational molester

    D) generalized molester

    # 1.10

    (1 pts.) Wendy has just purchased a vibrator in order to enhance her sexual arousal when she makes love to her husband. Which of the following statements best describes this situation?

    A) Wendy would be considered a fetishist.

    B) Wendy's husband might be diagnosed with erectile disorder.

    C) Wendy might be diagnosed with hypoactive sexual desire disorder.

    D) Wendy's behavior would not necessarily be considered fetishistic.

    # 1.11

    (1 pts.) While making love Harry feels a strong need to be dominant and often subjects his lovers to harsh physical treatment. This is the only way Harry can achieve sexual gratification. Harry might be diagnosed as having

    A) sexual sadism.

    B) sexual masochism.

    C) frotteurism.

    D) fetishism.

    # 1.12

    (1 pts.) Joe becomes sexually aroused when he views sexually explicit photographs. He also gets really turned on when his lover undresses in front of him. Joe's behavior might be described as

    A) fetishistic.

    B) frotteuristic.

    C) voyeuristic.

    D) normal.

  • Person Centered approach in Therapy Multiple Questions

    22. James is awakened at night by the barking dog (Hans) who lives next door. James opens his window and yells at the dog, to no avail. James next throws one of his best shoes at the dog, who immediately stops barking and busily chews on the shoe. James' shoe-throwing behavior has been:

    a. positively rei nforced.

    b. counterconditioned.

    c. negatively reinforced.

    d. James' behavior will not change.

    23. In the previous question, the dog's behavior has been:

    a. counter conditioned.

    b. positively reinforced.

    c. negatively reinforced.

    d. punished.

    24. Susan wants her boyfriend to kiss her more often. Unfortunately, boyfriend Dan does not approach Susan physically very much. Susan begins to smile and say nice things to Dan every time he comes within six inches of her. Pretty soon, Dan is so close that he touches Susan. She smiles and says very nice things to him. Susan continues to reward Dan's behavior when he touches her and finally one day he kisses her. She jumps for joy. What technique is she using?

    a. shaping

    b. negative reinforcement

    c. positive punishment

    d. none of the above

  • SOC 205 Week 11 Quiz 4:There are some areas identified as needing judicial innovation because of legislative inaction. Which of the following is not a part of judicial innovation? Death row appeals Equal accommodations Housing Race relations

    SOC 205 Week 11 Quiz 4

    Question 1

    There are some areas identified as needing judicial innovation because of legislative inaction. Which of the following is not a part of judicial innovation?

    Death row appeals

    Equal accommodations

    Housing

    Race relations

    Question 2

    The realist-behaviorist view suggests that judicial decision making is essentially the product of

    extralegal factors.

    laws.

    precedent.

    facts.

    Question 3

    A value held by trial and appellate judges is a commitment to follow precedents. This doctrine of ___ is a cardinal principle of the common law tradition.

    voir dire

    nolle prosequi

    stare decisis

    amicus curiae

  • Strategy’s of Decision Making Essay: Sociology Questions and Answers

    12 Questions Need Done As Soon As Possible

    HU260 Quiz

    Strategy’s of Decision Making

    Question 1

    Despite our rational nature, our ability to reason well is often affected by psychological biases that interfere with the formation of good arguments. Identify three such biases and explain how they negatively impact our ability to reason.

    Question 2

    The advent of social media has changed the norms and modes of public discourse. In at least 200 words, explain the importance of (a) evaluating and fact-checking individual claims, (b) the benefits and negatives of instantaneous mass communication, and (c) the need for civility in online interactions.

    Question 3

    Identify the fallacy: “Bob is trustworthy because he says so, and we can trust what Bob says because he’s trustworthy.”

    Fallacy of composition

    Begging the question

    Genetic falacy

    Appeal to authority

    Ad hominem

    Question 4

    Identify the fallacy: “All banks have money. All rivers have banks. Therefore, all rivers have money.”

    Equivocation

    Ad hominem

    Slippery slope

    Appeal to ignorance

    False cause

  • Teall Development Company Questions and Answers Online

    Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the firm is a

    publicly-owned corporation and is seeking to maximize shareholder wealth.

    . Firm M's earnings and stock price tend to move up and down with other

    firms in the S&P 500, while Firm W's earnings and stock price move

    counter cyclically with M and other S&P companies. Both M and W

    estimate their costs of equity using the CAPM, they have identical

    market values, their standard deviations of returns are identical, and

    they both finance only with common equity. Which of the following

    statements is CORRECT?

    • Bosio Inc.'s perpetual preferred stock sells for $97.50 per share, and

    it pays an $8.50 annual dividend. If the company were to sell a new

    preferred issue, it would incur a flotation cost of 4.00% of the price

    paid by investors. What is the company's cost of preferred stock for

    use in calculating the WACC?

  • What is the highest waterfall in the world? Essay and Answers Online

    1. What is the highest waterfall in the world ?

    [A] Angel Falls of Venezuela

    [B] Browne Fall of New Zealand

    [C] Catarata Gocta of Peru

    [D] Langfoss of Norway

    2. Which is the highest lake above the Sea level in the world ?

    [A] Lake Saiful-Muluk

    [B] Lake Tsomoriri

    [C] Lake Titicaca

    [D] Lake Panch

    3. Which is the world's largest lake by surface area?

    [A] Caspian Sea

    [B] Lake Superior

    [C] Lake Michigan-Huron

    [D] Black

    4. Kuroshio current is a Oceanic current and it is available in

    [A] South Atlantic Ocean

    [B] North Pacific Ocean

    [C] North Atlantic Ocean

    [D] North Indian  

  • When using the DSM model to determine abnormality of a behavior, which of the following statements is TR U E? a. The person's behavior is assessed both categorically and dimensionally. b. The person either falls into a category or doesn't fall into a category. c. The person's level of dysfunction is not considered. d. The behavior is not considered within a cultural context.

    Publisher:
    Pearson Prentice Hall

    PSY 505
    Psychopathology
    Text: Abnormal Psychology
    First Edition
    ISBN-10: 0132216124
    Authors:
    Deborah C. Beidel, Cynthia M. Bulik, and Melinda A. Stanley

    2.
    Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
    1. Of all disorders reported in the U.S., the most common are alcohol dependence and _
    a. anxiety disorders
    b. major depression
    c. schizophrenic disorders
    d. persona I ity disorder
    3. When using the DSM model to determine abnormality of a behavior, which of the following
    statements is TR U E?
    a. The person's behavior is assessed both categorically and dimensionally.
    b. The person either falls into a category or doesn't fall into a category.
    c. The person's level of dysfunction is not considered.
    d. The behavior is not considered within a cultural context.
    3. The first physician to adopt a form of occupational therapy for patients was
    a. Pinel.
    b. Paracelsus.
    c. Dix.
    d. Hippocrates.
    4. Emil Kraepelin is best known for his contributions to the study of schizophrenia. He introduced
    two new diagnostic categories of disordered behavior, dementia praecox and manic-depressive
    insanity, based on symptom differentiation, , and _
    a. etiology; prognosis
    b. etiology; physiology
    c. prognosis; symptomology
    d. prognosis; physiology
    5. In the classical conditioning paradigm demonstrated by Pavlov through his study of the
    physiology of dog digestion, what was the UCS?
    a. Bell
    b. Food Powder
    c. Pavlov
    d. Salivating
    36

    4.
    5. Raul is a college freshman who looks forward to weekend parties at college. He especially likes
    to play "beer pong" and is known on campus as a champion player. After a recent party, Raul
    received a DUI citation. Raul's parents have urged him to seek treatment for his "alcohol
    problem," but Raul refuses. He does not believe he has a drinking problem. In Freud's theory,
    which of the following defense mechanisms is Raul likely using?
    a. Intellectual ization
    b. Rationalization
    c. Denial
    d. Repression
    7. Tin Aaron Beck's model of depression, the cognitive triad consists of
    a. past, present, and future expectations.
    b. three types of negative thoughts.
    c. Freud's id, ego and superego.
    d. three levels of the mind.
    8. Ataque de nervios is a culture-bound syndrome found among Latinos. The notion that social
    forces playa role with respect to when this type of disorder occurs is supported by the fact that
    ataque symptoms
    a. differ depending on the culture in which they are expressed.
    b. are found in all Latino adolescents at some point in time.
    c. are seen only in those from large families.
    d. frequently begin after some form of social disruption.
    9. Latino youths born in the U.S. are as likely to attempt suicide as foreign-born Latino
    youths.
    a. three times
    b. five times
    c. four times
    d. twice
    10. The diathesis-stress model of abnormal behavior assumes that
    a. a person who has a genetic predisposition for a disorder will exhibit the disorder at
    some point in time.
    b. stress causes physiological changes that lead to disruptions in environmental supports.
    c. a "diathesis" from the environment interacts with biological influences to produce
    disordered behavior.
    d. biology and environmental factors interact to determine the likelihood that a person will
    exhibit abnormal behavior.
    37

    6.
    11. Mario has just returned from his third deployment to Iraq. For several months after returning,
    he is unable to sleep and has difficulty dealing with flashbacks of mortar fire over the compound in
    which he worked. Using a biopsychosocial model, we might explain his problems as deriving from
    a. the stress of deployment alone.
    b. a diathesis and the stress of deployment.
    c. a lack of social support.
    d. a failure in coping alone.
    12. The biological, psychological, sociocultural, and biopsychosocial models all assume that
    a. the cause of a dysfunctional behavior may be identified through research.
    b. there is an underlying physiological cause to abnormal behavior
    c. environmental events trigger physiological changes.
    d. no single factor may be a determinant in manifesting abnormal behavior.
    13.Which of the following statements is TRUE?
    a. Modern psychologists believe that psychopathology is physiologically based.
    b. Abnormal behavior may be best understood using a single theoretical framework.
    c. Understanding abnormal behaviors requires an integration of models.
    d. Sociocultural factors are the best explanation for disordered behavior.
    14. The human genome contains approximately genes.
    '" J; ()()() to 1 0,000
    b. 20,000 to 25,000
    c. 50,000 to 75,000
    d. 50,000 to 100,000
    15. Which of the following IS NOT a method of molecular genetics used to drill down to the
    molecular level in explaining behavior?
    a. Genomewide Linkage Analysis
    b. Candidate Gene Association Study
    c. Genomewide Association
    d. Candidate Genomewide Analysis
    38

    7.
    16. Which of the following IS NOT a benefit of the case study method?
    a. It allows for the examination of rare disorders or conditions.
    b. It may lead to the generation of new hypotheses to be tested in group studies.
    c. It allows for the evaluation of large groups with rare disorders.
    d. Case studies may highlight important clinical issues that may not surface in group
    studies.
    17. A research study produces a negative correlation between hours of sleep and test performance.
    Given this, what do we know about the relationship of the variables?
    a. As hours of sleep decrease, test performance increases.
    b. As hours of sleep increase, test performance increases.
    c. There is no relationship between the variables.
    d. There is a significant relationship between the variables.
    18. In correlational research, it is possible that a third variable influences the relationship of the
    other two variables. This type of variable is labeled a(n)
    a. independent variable.
    b. dependent variable.
    c. moderator variable.
    d. indirect variable.
    19. In a longitudinal study of depression in children cited in your text, it was found that as girls
    ",;th co h;otory of dcprc;:,;:,;on rno t ur cxf , Liley were 1ll00e uxery IO
    a. develop eating disorders.
    b. develop conduct disorders.
    c. drop out of the study.
    d. report substance abuse problems.
    20. During the course of a physical exam, a physician suspects his patient may be depressed. In
    order to explore this diagnostic possibility, the physician uses a "brief screening device" for
    depression. The doctor probably _
    a. asked the patient two questions about feelings of hopelessness and feelings related to
    the enjoyment of activities
    b. used the Audit to determine their level of depression
    c. used the General Health Questionnaire (GHQ) to assess the degree to which the
    patient's depression was affecti ng general health
    d. asked the patient to rate his degree of depression using the Checklist of Mood States
    (CMS)
    39

    8.
    9. Clinical assessments for outcome evaluation may be repeated over time during treatment in
    order to
    a. evaluate a patient's progress.
    b. be certain the problem behavior has been identified.
    c. recheck the accuracy of the diagnosis.
    d. determine the patient's changing attitudes toward the therapist.
    22. Dr. Winston is interested in determining if his patient's score on a psychometric instrument
    measuring resilience is comparable to the scores of other persons in his age group. Given this
    interest, Dr. Winston would compare his patient's score to scores for a group.
    a. normative
    b. comparative
    C. related
    d. relative

  • Which early sociologist emphasized the role of society in the development of the self? a. George Herbert Mead b. Karl Marx c. Georg Simmel d. Herbert Blumer

    Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

    1. Which early sociologist emphasized the role of society in the development of the self?

    a. George Herbert Mead

    b. Karl Marx

    c. Georg Simmel

    d. Herbert Blumer

    2. Which sociological social psychology perspective emphasizes the role of meaning and the social construction of meaning in the study of social psychology?

    a. symbolic interaction

    b. social structure and personality

    c. group processes

    d. structural functional ism

    3. Which sociological social psychology perspective is likely to emphasize the importance of roles and statuses in the study of social psychology?

    a. symbolic interaction

    b. social structure and personal ity

    c. group processes

    d. structural functionalism

    4. Which sociological social psychology perspective is likely to emphasize the importance of interactions within groups?

    a. symbolic interaction

    b. social structure and personality

    c. group processes

    d. structural functionalism

    5. The sociological imagination is associated with which social theorist?

    a. Emile Durkheim

    b. Max Weber

    c. C. Wright Mills

    d. Auguste Comte

    29

    shapeType75fBehindDocument1pWrapPolygonVertices8;4;(21500,0);(0,0);(0,21494);(21500,21494)posrelh0posrelv0pib

    6. The expectation to look someone in the eye when talking with them refers to a _

    a. norm

    b. role

    c. value

    d. belief