CHAPTER 5

ACCOUNTING FOR MERCHANDISING OPERATIONS

Summary of Questions by LEARNING Objectives and Bloom’s Taxonomy

sg This question also appears in the Study Guide.

st This question also appears in a self-test at the student companion website.

a This question covers a topic in an appendix to the chapter.

Summary of Questions by LEARNING Objectives and Bloom’s Taxonomy

SUMMARY OF LEARNING OBJECTIVES BY QUESTION TYPE

SUMMARY OF Learning OBJECTIVES BY QUESTION TYPE

Note: TF = True-False BE = Brief Exercise C = Completion

MC = Multiple Choice Ex = Exercise SA = Short-Answer

MA = Matching

CHAPTER LEARNING OBJECTIVES

1. Identify the differences between service and merchandising companies. Because of inventory, a merchandising company has sales revenue, cost of goods sold, and gross profit. To account for inventory, a merchandising company must choose between a perpetual and a periodic inventory system.

2. Explain the recording of purchases under a perpetual inventory system. The company debits the Inventory account for all purchases of merchandise, and freight-in, and credits it for purchase discounts and purchase returns and allowances.

3. Explain the recording of sales revenues under a perpetual inventory system. When a merchandising company sells inventory, it debits Accounts Receivable (or Cash) and credits Sales Revenue for the selling price of the merchandise. At the same time, it debits Cost of Goods Sold and credits Inventory for the cost of the inventory items sold. Sales returns and allowances and sales discounts are debited and are contra revenue accounts.

4. Explain the steps in the accounting cycle for a merchandising company. Each of the required steps in the accounting cycle for a service company applies to a merchandising company. A worksheet is again an optional step. Under a perpetual inventory system, the company must adjust the Inventory account to agree with the physical count.

5. Distinguish between a multiple-step and a single-step income statement. A multiple-step income statement shows numerous steps in determining net income, including nonoperating activities sections. A single-step income statement classifies all data under two categories, revenues or expenses, and determines net income in one step.

a6. Prepare a worksheet for a merchandising company. The steps in preparing a worksheet for a merchandising company are the same as for a service company. The unique accounts for a merchandiser are Inventory, Sales Revenue, Sales Returns and Allowances, Sales Discounts, and Cost of Goods Sold.

a7. Explain the recording of purchases and sales of inventory under a periodic inventory system. In recording purchases under a periodic system, companies must make entries for (a) cash and credit purchases, (b) purchase returns and allowances, (c) purchase discounts, and (d) freight costs. In recording sales, companies must make entries for (a) cash and credit sales, (b) sales returns and allowances, and (c) sales discounts.

TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS

1. Retailers and wholesalers are both considered merchandisers.

Ans: T, LO: 1, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

2. The steps in the accounting cycle are different for a merchandising company than for a service company.

Ans: F, LO: 1, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

3. Sales minus operating expenses equals gross profit.

Ans: F, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

4. Under a perpetual inventory system, the cost of goods sold is determined each time a sale occurs.

Ans: T, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

5. A periodic inventory system requires a detailed inventory record of inventory items.

Ans: F, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

6. Freight terms of FOB Destination means that the seller pays the freight costs.

Ans: T, LO: 2, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

7. Freight costs incurred by the seller on outgoing merchandise are an operating expense to the seller.

Ans: T, LO: 2, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

8. Sales revenues are earned during the period cash is collected from the buyer.

Ans: F, LO: 3, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

9. The Sales Returns and Allowances account and the Sales Discount account are both classified as expense accounts.

Ans: F, LO: 3, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

10. The revenue recognition principle applies to merchandisers by recognizing sales revenues when the performance obligation is satisfied.

Ans: T, LO: 3, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

11. Sales Returns and Allowances and Sales Discounts are both designed to encourage customers to pay their accounts promptly.

Ans: F, LO: 3, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

12. To grant a customer a sales return, the seller credits Sales Returns and Allowances.

Ans: F, LO: 3, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

13. A company's unadjusted balance in Inventory will usually not agree with the actual amount of inventory on hand at year-end.

Ans: T, LO: 4, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

14. For a merchandising company, all accounts that affect the determination of income are closed to the Income Summary account.

Ans: T, LO: 4, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

15. A merchandising company has different types of adjusting entries than a service company.

Ans: F, LO: 4, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

16. Nonoperating activities exclude revenues and expenses that result from secondary or auxiliary operations.

Ans: F, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

17. Operating expenses are different for merchandising and service enterprises.

Ans: F, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

18. Net sales appears on both the multiple-step and single-step forms of an income statement.

Ans: T, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

19. A multiple-step income statement provides users with more information about a company’s income performance.

Ans: T, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

20. The multiple-step form of income statement is easier to read than the single-step form.

Ans: F, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

21. Inventory is classified as a current asset in a classified balance sheet.

Ans: T, LO: 5, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

22. Gain on sale of equipment and interest expense are reported under other revenues and gains in a multiple-step income statement.

Ans: F, LO: 5, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

23. The gross profit section for a merchandising company appears on both the multiple-step and single-step forms of an income statement.

Ans: F, LO: 5, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

24. In a multiple-step income statement, income from operations excludes other revenues and gains and other expenses and losses.

Ans: T, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

25. A single-step income statement reports all revenues, both operating and other revenues and gains, at the top of the statement.

Ans: T, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

26. If net sales are $800,000 and cost of goods sold is $600,000, the gross profit rate is 25%.

Ans: T, LO: 5, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: Reporting

27. Gross profit represents the merchandising profit of a company.

Ans: T, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

28. Gross profit is a measure of the overall profitability of a company.

Ans: F, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

29. Gross profit rate is computed by dividing cost of goods sold by net sales.

Ans: F, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

a30. In a worksheet, cost of goods sold will be shown in the trial balance (Dr.), adjusted trial balance (Dr.) and income statement (Dr.) columns.

Ans: T, LO: 6, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

a31. Freight-in is an account that is subtracted from the Purchases account to arrive at cost of goods purchased.

Ans: F, LO: 7, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

a32. Under a periodic inventory system, the acquisition of inventory is charged to the Purchases account.

Ans: T, LO: 7, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

a33. Under a periodic inventory system, freight-in on merchandise purchases should be charged to the Inventory account.

Ans: F, LO: 7, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

a34. Purchase Returns and Allowances and Purchase Discounts are subtracted from Purchases to produce net purchases.

Ans: T, LO: 7, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

35. Inventory is reported as a long-term asset on the balance sheet.

Ans: F, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

36. Under a perpetual inventory system, inventory shrinkage and lost or stolen goods are more readily determined.

Ans: T, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

37. The terms 2/10, n/30 state that a 2% discount is available if the invoice is paid within the first 10 days of the next month.

Ans: F, LO: 2, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

38. Sales revenue should be recorded in accordance with the matching principle.

Ans: F, LO: 3, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

39. Sales returns and allowances and sales discounts are subtracted from sales in reporting net sales in the income statement.

Ans: T, LO: 3, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

40. A merchandising company using a perpetual inventory system will usually need to make an adjusting entry to ensure that the recorded inventory agrees with physical inventory count.

Ans: T, LO: 4, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

41. If a merchandising company sells land at more than its cost, the gain should be reported in the sales revenue section of the income statement.

Ans: F, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

42. The major difference between the balance sheets of a service company and a merchandising company is inventory.

Ans: T, LO: 5, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

Answers to True-False Statements

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

43. Net income is gross profit less

a. financing expenses.

b. operating expenses.

c. other expenses and losses.

d. other expenses.

Ans: B, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

44. An enterprise which sells goods to customers is known as a

a. proprietorship.

b. corporation.

c. retailer.

d. service firm.

Ans: C, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

45. Which of the following would not be considered a merchandising company?

a. Retailer

b. Wholesaler

c. Service firm

d. Dot Com firm

Ans: C, LO: 1, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

46. A merchandising company that sells directly to consumers is a

a. retailer.

b. wholesaler.

c. broker.

d. service company.

Ans: A, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

47. Two categories of expenses for merchandising companies are

a. cost of goods sold and financing expenses.

b. operating expenses and financing expenses.

c. cost of goods sold and operating expenses.

d. sales and cost of goods sold.

Ans: C, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

48. The primary source of revenue for a wholesaler is

a. investment income.

b. service fees.

c. the sale of merchandise.

d. the sale of fixed assets the company owns.

Ans: C, LO: 1, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

49. Sales revenue less cost of goods sold is called

a. gross profit.

b. net profit.

c. net income.

d. marginal income.

Ans: A, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

50. After gross profit is calculated, operating expenses are deducted to determine

a. gross margin.

b. net income.

c. gross profit on sales.

d. net margin.

Ans: B, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

51. Cost of goods sold is determined only at the end of the accounting period in

a. a perpetual inventory system.

b. a periodic inventory system.

c. both a perpetual and a periodic inventory system.

d. neither a perpetual nor a periodic inventory system.

Ans: B, LO: 1, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

52. Which of the following expressions is incorrect?

a. Gross profit – operating expenses = net income

b. Sales revenue – cost of goods sold – operating expenses = net income

c. Net income + operating expenses = gross profit

d. Operating expenses – cost of goods sold = gross profit

Ans: D, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Reporting

53. Detailed records of goods held for resale are not maintained under a

a. perpetual inventory system.

b. periodic inventory system.

c. double entry accounting system.

d. single entry accounting system.

Ans: B, LO: 1, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

54. A perpetual inventory system would likely be used by a(n)

a. automobile dealership.

b. hardware store.

c. drugstore.

d. convenience store.

Ans: A, LO: 1, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

55. Which of the following is a true statement about inventory systems?

a. Periodic inventory systems require more detailed inventory records.

b. Perpetual inventory systems require more detailed inventory records.

c. A periodic system requires cost of goods sold be determined after each sale.

d. A perpetual system determines cost of goods sold only at the end of the accounting period.

Ans: B, LO: 1, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

56. In a perpetual inventory system, cost of goods sold is recorded

a. on a daily basis.

b. on a monthly basis.

c. on an annual basis.

d. with each sale.

Ans: D, LO: 1, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

57. If a company determines cost of goods sold each time a sale occurs, it

a. must have a computer accounting system.

b. uses a combination of the perpetual and periodic inventory systems.

c. uses a periodic inventory system.

d. uses a perpetual inventory system.

Ans: D, LO: 1, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

58. Under a perpetual inventory system, acquisition of merchandise for resale is debited to the

a. Inventory account.

b. Purchases account.

c. Supplies account.

d. Cost of Goods Sold account.

Ans: A, LO: 2, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

59. The journal entry to record a return of merchandise purchased on account under a perpetual inventory system would credit

a. Accounts Payable.

b. Purchase Returns and Allowances.

c. Sales Revenue.

d. Inventory.

Ans: D, LO: 2, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Industry/Sector Perspective, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

60. The Inventory account is used in each of the following except the entry to record

a. goods purchased on account.

b. the return of goods purchased.

c. payment of freight on goods sold.

d. payment within the discount period.

Ans: C, LO: 2, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

61. A buyer would record a payment within the discount period under a perpetual inventory system by crediting

a. Accounts Payable.

b. Inventory.

c. Purchase Discounts.

d. Sales Discounts.

Ans: B, LO: 2, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

62. If a purchaser using a perpetual system agrees to freight terms of FOB shipping point, then the

a. Inventory account will be increased.

b. Inventory account will not be affected.

c. seller will bear the freight cost.

d. carrier will bear the freight cost.

Ans: A, LO: 2, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

63. Freight costs paid by a seller on merchandise sold to customers will cause an increase

a. in the selling expense of the buyer.

b. in operating expenses for the seller.

c. to the cost of goods sold of the seller.

d. to a contra-revenue account of the seller.

Ans: B, LO: 2, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

64. Paden Company purchased merchandise from Emmett Company with freight terms of FOB shipping point. The freight costs will be paid by the

a. seller.

b. buyer.

c. transportation company.

d. buyer and the seller.

Ans: B, LO: 2, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

65. Glenn Company purchased merchandise inventory with an invoice price of $9,000 and credit terms of 2/10, n/30. What is the net cost of the goods if Glenn Company pays within the discount period?

a. $8,100

b. $8,280

c. $8,820

d. $9,000

Ans: C, LO: 2, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

Solution: $9,000 ( (1 - .02) ( $8,820

66. Scott Company purchased merchandise with an invoice price of $3,000 and credit terms of 1/10, n/30. Assuming a 360 day year, what is the implied annual interest rate inherent in the credit terms?

a. 20%

b. 24%

c. 18%

d. 36%

Ans: C, LO: 2, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

Solution: [360 ( (30 ( 10)] ( 1% ( 18%

67. If a company is given credit terms of 2/10, n/30, it should

a. hold off paying the bill until the end of the credit period, while investing the money at 10% annual interest during this time.

b. pay within the discount period and recognize a savings.

c. pay within the credit period but don't take the trouble to invest the cash while waiting to pay the bill.

d. recognize that the supplier is desperate for cash and withhold payment until the end of the credit period while negotiating a lower sales price.

Ans: B, LO: 2, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: Business Economics

68. In a perpetual inventory system, the amount of the discount allowed for paying for merchandise purchased within the discount period is credited to

a. Inventory.

b. Purchase Discounts.

c. Purchase Allowance.

d. Sales Discounts.

Ans: A, LO: 2, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: Business Economics

69. Jake’s Market recorded the following events involving a recent purchase of merchandise:

Received goods for $60,000, terms 2/10, n/30.

Returned $1,200 of the shipment for credit.

Paid $300 freight on the shipment.

Paid the invoice within the discount period.

As a result of these events, the company’s inventory increased by

a. $57,624.

b. $57,918.

c. $57,924.

d. $59,100.

Ans: C, LO: 2, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

Solution: [($60,000 ( $1,200( .98)] ( 300 ( $57,924

70. Costner’s Market recorded the following events involving a recent purchase of merchandise:

Received goods for $40,000, terms 2/10, n/30.

Returned $800 of the shipment for credit.

Paid $200 freight on the shipment.

Paid the invoice within the discount period.

As a result of these events, the company’s inventory

a. increased by $38,416.

b. increased by $38,612.

c. increased by $38,616.

d. increased by $39,400.

Ans: C, LO: 2, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

Solution: [($40,000 ( $800) ( .98] ( $200 ( $38,616

71. Under the perpetual system, cash freight costs incurred by the buyer for the transporting of goods is recorded in

a. Freight Expense.

b. Freight - In.

c. Inventory.

d Freight - Out.

Ans: C, LO: 2, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: None, IMA: FSA

72. Glover Co. returned defective goods costing $5,000 to Mal Company on April 19, for credit. The goods were purchased April 10, on credit, terms 3/10, n/30. The entry by Glover Co. on April 19, in receiving full credit is:

a. Accounts Payable 5,000

Inventory 5,000

b. Accounts Payable 5,000

Inventory 150

Cash 5,150

c. Accounts Payable 5,000

Purchase Discounts 120

Inventory 4,850

d. Accounts Payable 5,000

Inventory 120

Cash 4,850

Ans: A, LO: 2, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

73. McIntyre Company made a purchase of merchandise on credit from Marvin Company on August 8, for $9,000, terms 3/10, n/30. On August 17, McIntyre makes the appropriate payment to Marvin. The entry on August 17 for McIntyre Company is:

a. Accounts Payable 9,000

Cash 9,000

b. Accounts Payable 8,730

Cash 8,730

c. Accounts Payable 9,000

Purchase Returns and Allowances 270

MC. 73 (Cont.)

Cash 8,730

d. Accounts Payable 9,000

Inventory 270

Cash 8,730

Ans: D, LO: 2, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

Solution: $9,000 ( .97 ( $8,730

74. On July 9, Sheb Company sells goods on credit to Wooley Company for $5,000, terms 1/10, n/60. Sheb receives payment on July 18. The entry by Sheb on July 18 is:

a. Cash 5,000

Accounts Receivable 5,000

b. Cash 5,000

Sales Discounts 50

Accounts Receivable 4,950

c. Cash 4,950

Sales Discounts 50

Accounts Receivable 5,000

d. Cash 5,050

Sales Discounts 50

Accounts Receivable 5,000

Ans: C, LO: 3, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

Solution: $5,000 ( .99 ( $4,950

75. On November 2, 2014, Kasdan Company has cash sales of $6,000 from merchandise having a cost of $3,600. The entries to record the day's cash sales will include:

a. a $3,600 credit to Cost of Goods Sold.

b. a $6,000 credit to Cash.

c. a $3,600 credit to Inventory.

d a $6,000 debit to Accounts Receivable.

Ans: C, LO: 3, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

76. A credit sale of $4,000 is made on April 25, terms 2/10, n/30, on which a return of $250 is granted on April 28. What amount is received as payment in full on May 4?

a. $3,675

b. $3,750

c. $3,920

d $4,000

Ans: A, LO: 3, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

Solution: ($4,000 ( $250) ( .98 ( $3,675

77. The entry to record the receipt of payment within the discount period on a sale of $2,000 with terms of 2/10, n/30 will include a credit to

a. Sales Discounts for $40.

b. Cash for $1,960.

c. Accounts Receivable for $2,000.

d. Sales Revenue for $2,000.

Ans: C, LO: 3, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

78. The collection of a $6,000 account within the 2 percent discount period will result in a

a. debit to Sales Discounts for $120.

b. debit to Accounts Receivable for $5,880.

c. credit to Cash for $5,880.

d. credit to Accounts Receivable for $5,880.

Ans: A, LO: 3, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

Solution: $6,000 ( .02 ( $120

79. Company X sells $900 of merchandise on account to Company Y with credit terms of 2/10, n/30. If Company Y remits a check taking advantage of the discount offered, what is the amount of Company Y's check?

a. $630

b. $720

c. $810

d. $882

Ans: D, LO: 3, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

Solution: $900 ( .98 ( $882

80. Cleese Company sells merchandise on account for $5,000 to Langston Company with credit terms of 2/10, n/30. Langston Company returns $1,000 of merchandise that was damaged, along with a check to settle the account within the discount period. What is the amount of the check?

a. $3,920

b. $4,000

c. $4,900

d. $4,920

Ans: A, LO: 3, Bloom: AP, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

Solution: ($5,000 ( $1,000) ( .98 ( $3,920

81. The collection of a $1,500 account after the 2 percent discount period will result in a

a. debit to Cash for $1,470.

b. debit to Accounts Receivable for $1,500.

c. debit to Cash for $1,500.

d. debit to Sales Discounts for $30.

Ans: C, LO: 3, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

82. The collection of a $1,000 account after the 2 percent discount period will result in a

a. debit to Cash for $980.

b. credit to Accounts Receivable for $1,000.

c. credit to Cash for $1,000.

d. debit to Sales Discounts for $20.

Ans: B, LO: 3, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

83. In a perpetual inventory system, the Cost of Goods Sold account is used

a. only when a cash sale of merchandise occurs.

b. only when a credit sale of merchandise occurs.

c. only when a sale of merchandise occurs.

d. whenever there is a sale of merchandise or a return of merchandise sold.

Ans: D, LO: 3, Bloom: C, Difficulty: Medium, Min: 2, AACSB: Analytic, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Measurement, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: FSA

84. Sales revenues are usually considered earned when

a. cash is received from credit sales.

b. an order is received.

c. goods have been transferred from the seller to the buyer.

d. adjusting entries are made.

Ans: C, LO: 3, Bloom: K, Difficulty: Easy, Min: 1, AACSB: None, AICPA BB: Legal/Regulatory, AICPA FN: Reporting, AICPA PC: Problem Solving, IMA: Reporting

85. A sales invoice is a source document that

a. provides support for goods purchased for resale.

b. provides evidence of incurred operating expenses.

c. provides evidence of credit sales.

d. serves only as a customer receipt.

Read The Book(Uploaded) And Write About The Questions(Each 1150~200 Words)

1. What is Global Stratification? please quote from the textbook. (1 point)

2. Compare and contrast World System Theory with Neocolonialism. What are some strengths and some weakness of these two theories? Please quote the textbook. (2 points)

Reading

Chapter 9 (Global Stratification)

DON'T USE OTHER SOURCES PLEASE.

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Question 1

True or False?

Modern geologic knowledge is the product of curious individuals, who 1) questioned our knowledge of scientific fact, 2) investigated natural processes, and 3) honestly reported the facts.

Select one:

True

False

Question 2

So far we've focused on the differences between volcanic calderas and a volcanic craters... which both form at volcano peaks.

True or false?

Calderas and craters are similar because they are both landforms that show a collapse in the land surface above an area of volcanic activity.

Select one:

True

False

Question 3

What criteria do geologists use to designate a supervolcano?

Select one:

a. If it has a caldera

b. If it erupts more than a specific volume of material

c. If it is a shield volcano

d. If it formed over a hot spot

Question 4

What evidence do geologists study to understand the relative magnitude or frequency in time of past volcanic eruptions?

Hint: Please consider the data shown on our geologic map of past lahars around Mt Rainier. :-) These mapped lahars enable us to estimate the risk of building in a particular area.

Select one:

a. The relative extent of volcanic deposits

b. The relative age of volcanic deposits

c. The relative thickness of volcanic deposits

d. All of these

Question 5

Consider the age of the various Hawaiian Islands given below in millions of years. Remember, the formation of the Hawaiian Islands reflects: 1) the movement of the Pacific plate, and 2) stationary volcanic hotspot activity over time.

Which direction is the Pacific plate currently moving?

Maps are plan or bird's eye views of the earth's surface. Here, the top of the figure is north, and the bottom of the figure is south. The left side of the figure is west, and the right side is east.

Select one:

a. North

b. Northwest

c. Southeast

d. Southwest

e. Northeast

f. South

Question 6

Prior to 45 million years ago, the Pacific plate was moving in a different direction. Remember, the number on the map above are volcano ages, in millions of years.

Using the same plot, answer this next question.

Prior to 45 million years ago, in which direction was the Pacific plate moving?

Select one:

a. Southwest

b. South

c. Northwest

d. Southeast

e. Northeast

f. North

Question 7

Prior to the 2018 eruption, Kilauea volcano was:

Hint: You can learn the answer by viewing the public lecture or searching the internet. Your text gives definitions of the terms below.

Select one:

a. An extinct volcano

b. A dormant volcano

c. An active volcano

Question 8

Last years eruptions emerged from fissures in the East Rift Zone (ERZ) on the big island of Hawaii. This zone is not located at the peak of Kilauea, but instead, near the base.

Choose the statement that most accurately describes the tectonic setting of the East Rift Zone (ERZ) on the big island of Hawaii.

Hint: To remind yourself the details of the tectonic setting, refer to your Hazard Explorations... Also, it is recommended that you consult a plate tectonic map of the earth (in your text!) to identify the plate tectonic setting at each of the following locations.

The figure of Hawaii below shows the shape of the East Rift Zone, which consists of fissures, and the locations of craters that formed along it.

Select one:

a. The ERZ is most similar to fissures in the Snake River plain of Idaho, which erupted basaltic lava.

b. The ERZ is most similar to the East African rift zone, where fissures surrounding Mt. Nyiragongo erupt basaltic lava.

c. The ERZ is most similar to mid oceanic rifts on Iceland, which erupt curtains of basaltic lava.

d. The ERZ is most similar to the Mid Atlantic Ridge which erupts basaltic lava from fissures.

e. The ERZ is most similar to fissures along the mid oceanic East Pacific Rise which erupt basaltic lava.

Question 9

The primary hazards to residents during the 2018 eruption of Kilauea were the following:

Hint: The answer is found by listening to the story in the Kilauea talk! :-)

Select one:

a. Pyroclasts and airfall

b. Lava and volcanic gases

c. Volcanic bombs and lapilli

d. East Rift Zone lahars

Question 10

Kyle shows a diagram in his talk at 11 minutes and 43 seconds.

The diagram is best described as a(n):

Select one:

a. Oblique view

b. Profile or cross section view

c. Bird’s eye view

d. Map view

Question 11

What process is the source of thermal heat that emerges as a hotspot?

Hint: This is a review of HE#1 & HE#2 material... Please consider the definition of a hotspot. It is widely believed that hotspots form where the inner core makes contact with the mantle or lowermost asthenosphere.

Select one:

a. Radiation from the sun

b. Convection in the asthenosphere

c. Conduction in the lithosphere

d. Radioactivity in the core

Question 12

Geologists rely on new technology more and more. Some new technology allows us to model the earth's surface, like the model you see in the Google Earth tool, and some describe the area below the earth's surface!

Which method of investigation allows geophysicists to best “visualize” or model a buried magma chamber beneath a caldera or crater formed on the earth's surface?

Hint: These methods are discussed in both talks and answer is mentioned in the Kīlauea talk!

Select one:

a. InSAR

b. Seismic tomography

c. Structure-from-Motion

d. LiDAR

Question 13

Deformation of the earth’s crust happens above a buried magma chamber.

Volcanos, fissures, craters, and calderas are all types of surface deformation.

As the magma chamber fills up, it expands like a balloon and pushes up on the ground surface. In response, the ground over the magma chamber stretches (again just like the rubber of a balloon!) and develops cracks.

—

Imagine two people are standing facing one another, and then a wide, broad crack in the earth’s surface grows between them. Imagine that crack is just like the crack shown by Kyle at 15 minutes in the video on Kilauea.

Do the two people on either side of this crack move closer together or further apart?

Hint: draw a picture to help you visualize this situation!

Select one:

a. Closer together, so the deformation is due to compression of the crust.

b. Further apart, so the deformation is due to extension of the crust.

c. Neither, so the amount of crustal deformation is negligible

Question 14

In Hazard Exploration #7, we discussed volcano monitoring methods, such as global positioning system (GPS) receivers.

Often geologists use global positioning system (GPS) receivers fixed to earth’s surface to measure deformation. Unlike your smartphone, these particular GPS receivers are literally bolted to the ground.

The picture below is an example of a permanent GPS receiver:

Because the receiver is fixed to the ground, if one moves—then the ground itself moved! This change could indicate a few things, including tectonic plate motion, landsliding, or the bulging of a magma chamber!

Geologists can also pound 2 stakes into the ground, and then monitor their location during surveys.

It is useful to place 2 stakes or GPS receivers on either side of a volcano or an earthquake fault to monitor any crustal motion that occurs.

—

Which of the following events resulted in stretching of the crust such that the GPS receivers or markers move further apart?

Hint: draw a sketch for each scenario and listen to Kyle’s story!

Select one:

a. A quiet period of inactivity for the Mt. Waialeale caldera on the island of Kauai.

b. Emptying and deflation of the magma chamber below Pu’u O’o Crater on the island of Hawaii.

c. Any quiet period of inactivity between 2 earthquakes on the San Andreas fault.

d. Filling and swelling of the magma chamber below Pu’u O’o Crater on the island of Hawaii.

Question 15

A number of studies indicate periods of deformation on the floor of Yellowstone caldera and outside of the caldera. The total stretching or bulging over the past couple decades amounts to about 70 centimeters of swelling!

What process does this deformation most likely reflect?

Hint: The answer is mentioned in the Yellowstone talk!

Select one:

a. Magma leaving the chamber buried below the floor of the caldera.

b. Earth tides in northwestern Wyoming

c. Magma filling the chamber buried below the floor of the caldera.

d. Temperature changes due to solar radiation.

Question 16

What was unique about the 2018 eruption of Kilauea, when compared with the 1924 eruption?

Hint: Many similarities are discussed, and the difference is also highlighted, if you listen to the Kīlauea talk until the ending.

Select one:

a. The viscosity of the lava

b. The fissure eruption

c. Drop of the lava lake level in the summit crater of Kilauea

d. The phreatic eruption

Question 17

Collapse of the flank of the big Hawaiian island happened toward the south and dropped the land into the sea! In some ways, this event is similar to the collapse of a large bulge on the side of Mt. St. Helens.

In your homework, we described the chain of events leading to the eruption of Mt. St. Helens. Now we focus on a similar story for Kilauea via Kyle's talk.

Which of the following events did NOT occur during BOTH the Mt. St. Helens and Kilauea eruptions?

Select one:

a. A large magnitude earthquake

b. A large landslide-type collapse

c. A lateral volcanic blast

d. Emptying of magma from a buried magma chamber

Question 18

True or False?

The volcanic gases emitted during the 2018 eruption will have a long term impact on climate.

Hint: The answer is mentioned in the Kīlauea talk! Be sure to watch the question and answer period at the end of the talk, too.

Select one:

True

False

Question 19

How much carbon dioxide (CO2) does a volcanic eruption of Kilauea typically emit?

Hint: The answer is mentioned in the Yellowstone and Kīlauea talk!

Select one:

a. 45,000 tons per day (equal to one large coal-fired power plant)

b. 450,000 tons per day (equal to ten large coal-fired power plants)

c. 4,500,000 tons per day (equal to 100 large coal-fired power plants)

d. 45,000,000 tons per day (equal to 1000 large coal-fired power plants)

Question 20

What new tool did geologists use to estimate the flow rates of lava travelling from Kilauea to the sea over the duration of this eruption?

Hint: The answer is mentioned by Kyle in the Kīlauea talk!

Select one:

a. GPS receivers on rubber duckies

b. Radio transmitters on rubber duckies

c. Thermal sensors on rubber duckies

d. Models of the landscape from drones

Question 21

Match the lava viscosity with the type of basaltic rock that it forms.

Watch A'A form here:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iyIV5fd1Aww

Watch Pahoehoe form here:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ACRHp0lKcog

Watch the thin skin of rock on a lava lake form here:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=j8qMTbPtH_o

Hint: This is mentioned by Kyle in the Kilauea talk!

High viscosity ------ ______________

Medium Viscosity ------ ______________

Low Viscosity ------ ______________

( Answer option: Thin skin of rock on a lava lake, Pahoehoe, Volcanic pumice, A'A )

Question 22

True or False?

This 2018 eruption of Kilauea was the first historical caldera collapse ever witnessed by modern cultures.

Hint: the answer is in the Kilauea story told by Kyle.

Select one:

True

False

Question 23

When calderas like the one at the top of Kilauea collapse, they form cracks like faults around the region.

Here's a lovely drone video showing some examples:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=H2BFFK_r5NU

Kyle Anderson talks about Kilauea caldera sinking or subsidence. He mentioned that the cracks are normal faults inside the caldera. He shows a video of one growing. In this class, we've discussed normal faults.

Choose the principle force in effect that causes normal faults:

Hint: this is the same as for tectonic faults!

Select one:

a. Compression

b. Tension

c. Shear

d. All of these

Question 24

Kyle shows a histogram that directly correlates earthquakes that happened with deformation at Kilauea.

What did the mid June swarms of earthquakes at Kilauea record specifically?

Select one:

a. Subsidence of rock over a dropping magma reservoir

b. Periodic inflation of the magma reservoir and related ground tilt

Question 25

Based on the record of individual earthquakes throughout this eruption, which process is associated with more earthquakes?

Hint: The answer is shown in the Kīlauea talk!

Select one:

a. Magma inflation or bulging of the caldera surface

b. Caldera collapse or subsidence

Question 26

How many people died in the 2018 eruption of Kilauea?

Select one:

a. 700

b. 7

c. 70

d. Zero

Question 27

Which very young geographic feature will look like Kilauea in the most distant future, a few million years from now?

Select one:

a. Kauai

b. Maui

c. Mauna Loa

d. Lo’ihi

e. Mauna Kea

f. O’ahu

Question 28

The map view of Idaho and Wyoming below shows the relative ages in millions of years of volcanic centers (including Yellowstone and the older Snake River Plain).

Based on these relative ages, in which direction has the North American tectonic plate been moving over the hotspot during the past 14 million years?

Hint: the top of the map is north, the bottom is south, the left side is west, and the right side is east. The active Yellowstone caldera in Wyoming is labeled the Yellowstone Plateau VF.

Select one:

a. Southeast

b. Northwest

c. Southwest

d. Northeast

Question 29

Why do researchers of Yellowstone caldera think a super eruption (1000 cubic kilometers or more of material) is very unlikely? (A smaller eruption is still possible and more likely, because the volcano is active!)

Hint: The answer is mentioned in the Yellowstone talk!

Select one:

a. There is relatively little magma in the chamber (10-15%)

b. Observed earthquakes are relatively small (< M 4.5)

c. Emissions of volcanic gases are relatively low

d. There are little to no steam explosions associated with seismicity

e. All of these

# 1.1

(1 pts.) In the textbook case, what information led Dr. Tobin to conclude that Shaun Boyden's sexual attraction to children was not a passing fancy? '

A) the fact that he reported having the urges since adolescence

B) the fact that his wife was unaware of his problem

C) the fact that he was never caught in the past

D) the fact that he had a relatively normal sexual development

# 1.2

(1 pts.) Charlie has opted to have psychosurgery performed in order to change his pedophilic patterns. Which of the following procedures will Charlie have done?

A) prefrontal lobotomy

B) hypothalamotomy

C) castration

D) vasectomy

# 1.3

(1 pts.) Dr. Walters is instructing Harry to imagine that he has just "flashed" his genitals at an unsuspecting woman on the street. After the woman responds in horror, Harry is to imagine that all of his closest friends jump out of a nearby alley and start laughing at him. Dr. Walters is using the technique known as

A) systematic desensitization.

B) cognitive restructuring.

C) covert conditioning.

D) behavior modification.

# 1.4

(1 pts.) Who is most likely to be the target of a frotteurist's desires?

A) a person from work

B) a life-long friend

C) a shopper at the mall

D) a close relative

# 1.5

(1 pts.) Which of the following qualities is NOT implied by a diagnosis of transvestic fetishism?

A) male

B) sees self as male

C) heterosexual

D) homosexual

# 1.6

(1 pts.) Cheryl is seeking a sex change operation. It is most likely that a qualified surgeon would require her to

A) explore sexual relationships with both males and females.

B) get parental consent prior initiating the surgery.

C) live as a member of the opposite sex for a period prior to surgery.

D) pay for the surgical procedures well in advance.

# 1.7

(1 pts.) Dwayne is very interested in sex but his penis remains flaccid despite erotic stimulation. Dwayne has

A) sexual arousal disorder.

B) sexual aversion disorder.

C) male erectile disorder.

D) inhibited male orgasm disorder.

# 1.8

(1 pts.) A client is diagnosed with an erectile dysfunction. Based on the research presented in the text, which of the following statements best describes the likely cause of his condition?

A) It is most likely that his difficulty is due to physical problems.

B) It is most likely that his difficulty is due to psychological problems.

C) There is about a 50-50 chance that his problems are due to either physical or psychological factors.

D) There is a strong chance that his difficulties are due to neurological problems.

# 1.9

(1 pts.) Based on the information presented in the textbook case, Shaun Boyden might be considered a ______ since he had a normal history of sexual development and interests.

A) child rapist

B) preference molester

C) situational molester

D) generalized molester

# 1.10

(1 pts.) Wendy has just purchased a vibrator in order to enhance her sexual arousal when she makes love to her husband. Which of the following statements best describes this situation?

A) Wendy would be considered a fetishist.

B) Wendy's husband might be diagnosed with erectile disorder.

C) Wendy might be diagnosed with hypoactive sexual desire disorder.

D) Wendy's behavior would not necessarily be considered fetishistic.

# 1.11

(1 pts.) While making love Harry feels a strong need to be dominant and often subjects his lovers to harsh physical treatment. This is the only way Harry can achieve sexual gratification. Harry might be diagnosed as having

A) sexual sadism.

B) sexual masochism.

C) frotteurism.

D) fetishism.

# 1.12

(1 pts.) Joe becomes sexually aroused when he views sexually explicit photographs. He also gets really turned on when his lover undresses in front of him. Joe's behavior might be described as

A) fetishistic.

B) frotteuristic.

C) voyeuristic.

D) normal.

22. James is awakened at night by the barking dog (Hans) who lives next door. James opens his window and yells at the dog, to no avail. James next throws one of his best shoes at the dog, who immediately stops barking and busily chews on the shoe. James' shoe-throwing behavior has been:

a. positively rei nforced.

b. counterconditioned.

c. negatively reinforced.

d. James' behavior will not change.

23. In the previous question, the dog's behavior has been:

a. counter conditioned.

b. positively reinforced.

c. negatively reinforced.

d. punished.

24. Susan wants her boyfriend to kiss her more often. Unfortunately, boyfriend Dan does not approach Susan physically very much. Susan begins to smile and say nice things to Dan every time he comes within six inches of her. Pretty soon, Dan is so close that he touches Susan. She smiles and says very nice things to him. Susan continues to reward Dan's behavior when he touches her and finally one day he kisses her. She jumps for joy. What technique is she using?

a. shaping

b. negative reinforcement

c. positive punishment

d. none of the above

SOC 205 Week 11 Quiz 4

Question 1

There are some areas identified as needing judicial innovation because of legislative inaction. Which of the following is not a part of judicial innovation?

Death row appeals

Equal accommodations

Housing

Race relations

Question 2

The realist-behaviorist view suggests that judicial decision making is essentially the product of

extralegal factors.

laws.

precedent.

facts.

Question 3

A value held by trial and appellate judges is a commitment to follow precedents. This doctrine of ___ is a cardinal principle of the common law tradition.

voir dire

nolle prosequi

stare decisis

amicus curiae

This is the correct material for UMUC Biology 102/103 Lab 2: The Chemistry of Life. However, this is an Answer Key, which means, you should put it in your own words. Here are the questions that will be answered. Attached is the lab that is fully completed when purchased. Enjoy!

Pre-Lab Questions

1. Nitrogen fixation is a natural process by which inert or unreactive forms of nitrogen are transformed into usable nitrogen. Why is this process important to life?

2. Given what you have learned about the hydrogen bonding shared between nucleic acids in DNA, which pair is more stable under increasing heat: adenine and thymine, or cytosine and guanine? Explain why.

3. Which of the following is not an organic molecule; Methane (CH4), Fructose(C6H12O6), Rosane (C20H36), or Ammonia (NH3)? How do you know?

What is a thermo chemical equation?

Please read the instructions clearly. Write a 750-1500 word paper, you can select any of the topics as long as you let me know in advanced.

Written Assignment: Biology and Technology in the Real World

Addresses course outcomes 1-4:

·         recognize and explain how the scientific method is used to solve problems

·         make observations and discriminate between scientific and pseudoscientific explanations

·         weigh evidence and make decisions based on strengths and limitations of scientific knowledge and the scientific method

·         use knowledge of biological principles, the scientific method, and appropriate technologies to ask relevant questions, develop hypotheses, design and conduct experiments, interpret results, and draw conclusions

1. Select one of the topics listed below.

2. Find at least three information sources related to the topic. You can find assistance with searching for articles at the UMUC Library Subject Guides at http://libguides.umuc.edu/science.

3. Write a 750-1500 word paper, excluding references and title page. You must read the information sources that you find and summarize the information in your own words, addressing each of the questions and expectations for your chosen topic. Extensive quotes from the article are discouraged. Use APA style for citing references, see https://www.umuc.edu/library/libhow/apa_tutorial.cfm

4. Post your assignment to the Assignment folder by the due date listed in the course schedule.